PLACEMENT PAPERS & PUZZLES OF
SATYAM,INFOSYS,TCS,WIPRO
""SOLVE BELOW PAPERS""
SATYAM Job Placement Paper
Directions: Each question given below consists of a word, followed by four words or phrases. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in the question.
ANTONYMS
1. Disregarded
(a) heed
(b) hopeful
(c) evade
(d) dense
Ans. (a)
2. Obviate
(a) becloud
(b) necessitate
(c) rationalize
(d) execute
Ans. (b)
3. Superficial
(a) profound
(b) exaggerated
(c) subjective
(d) spirited
Ans. (a)
4. Abide
(a) retract an offer
(b) refuse to endure
(c) shield from harm
(d) exonerate
Ans. (b)
6. A Brown female could have had
I. a grandfather born Red
II. a grandmother born Red
III. two grandfathers born Brown
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II only
(d) II and III only
(e) I,II and III
Ans. (c)
7. A male born into the Brown group may have
(a) an uncle in either group
(b) a Brown daughter
(c) a Brown son
(d) a son-in-law born into the Red group
(e) a daughter-in-law in the Red group
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules stated?
(a) A Brown male marrying his father's sister
(b) A Red female marrying her mother's brother
(c) A man born Red, who is now a widower, marrying his brother's widow
(d) A widower marrying his wife's sister
(e) A widow marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
Ans. (b)
9. If widowers and divorced males retained the group they had upon marrying, which of the following would have been permissible? (Assume no previous marriages occurred)
(a) A woman marrying her dead sister's husband
(b) A woman marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband.
(c) A widower marrying his brother's daughter
(d) A woman marrying her mother's brother, who is a widower
(e) A divorced male marrying his ex-wife's divorced sister
Ans. (d)
Questions 10-13
Tom wishes to enroll in Latin AA, Sanskrit A, Armenian Literature 221, and Celtic Literature 701.
Latin AA meets five days a week, either from 9 to 11 A.M or from 2 to 4 P.M.
Sanskrit A meets either Tuesday and Thursday from 12 noon to 3 P.M., or Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
from 10 A.M to 12 noon.
Armenian Literature 221 meets either Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 12:30 to 2 P.M., or Tuesday and Thursday
from 10:30 A.M to 12:30 P.M
Celtic Literature 701 meets by arrangement with the instructor, the only requirement being that it meet for one four-hour session or two two-hour sessions per week, between 9A.M and 4 P.M from Monday to Friday, beginning on the hour.
10. Which combination is impossible for Tom?
(a) Latin in the morning, Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday, and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, Friday
(b) Latin in the afternoon and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday.
(c) Latin in the afternoon, Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday,and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday
(d) Latin in the morning and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
(e) Latin in the afternoon, Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesda and Friday, and Celtic Literature on Tuesday
Ans. (d)
11. Which of the following gives the greatest number of alternatives for scheduling Celtic Literature, assuming that all other courses
(a) Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature Monday, Wednesday and Friday
(b) Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday and Friday
(c) Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature Tuesday and Thursday
(d) Latin in the morning and Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday
(e) Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday
Ans. (a)
12. If the Celtic instructor insists on holding at least one session on Friday, in which of the following can Tom enroll?
(I) Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
(II) Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) both I and II
(d) I or II but not both
(e) neither I nor II
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following additional courses, meeting as indicated, can Tom take?
(a) Maths--Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 10A.M to 12 noon
(b) French--Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 11A.M to 12:30 P.M
(c) English--Tuesday and Thursday from 2 to 4 P.M
(d) Japenese--Tuesday and Thursday from 1 to 3 P.M
(e) Old Norse-Icelandic--Monday only from 12 to 3 P.M
Ans. (b)
Questions 14-18
(1) Ashland is north of East Liverpool and west of Coshocton
(2) Bowling Green is north of Ashland and west of Fredericktown
(3) Dover is south and east of Ashland
(4) East Liverpool is north of Fredricktown and east of Dover
(5) Fredricktown is north of Dover and west of Ashland
(6) Coshocton is south of Fredricktown and west of Dover
14. Which of the towns mentioned is furthest to the northwest ?
(a) Ashland
(b) Bowling Green
(c) Coshocton
(d) East Liverpool
(e) Fredericktown
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following must be both north and east of Fredricktown?
(I) Ashland
(II) Coshocton
(III) East Liverpool
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I and II
(e) I and III
Ans. (e)
16. Which of the following towns must be situated both south and west of at least one other town?
(a) Ashland only
(b) Ashland and Fredricktown
(c) Dover and Fredricktown
(d) Dover,Coshocton and Fredricktown
(e) Dover,Coshocton and East Liverpool
Ans. (d)
17. Which of the following statements, if true, would make the information in the numbered statements more specific?
(a) Coshocton is north of Dover
(b) East Liverpool is north of Dover
(c) Ashland is east of Bowling Green
(d) Coshocton is east of Fredericktown
(e) Bowling Green is north of Fredericktown
Ans. (a)
18. Which of the numbered statements gives information that can be deduced from one or more of the other statement?
(a) (1)
(b) (2)
(c) (3)
(d) (4)
(e) (6)
Ans. (c)
Questions 19-22
Spelunkers International offers exploring tours in eight caves: Abbott, Benny, Caeser, Dangerfield, Ewell, Fields, Guinness, and Hope
(1) Class 1 spelunkers may not attempt cave Ewell, Fields or Hope
(2) Class 2 spelunkers may not attempt Hope
(3) Class 3 spelunkers may attempt any cave
(4) Cave Caesar may be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored cave Benny
(5) Cave Fields may be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored cave Ewell
(6) Only two of caves Benny, Caeser, Ewell, Fields, and Hope may be attempted by any explorer in a single tour
19. A class 2 spelunker who has previously explored cave Ewell may be restricted in choosing a tour by which rule(s)?
(I) Rule(4)
(II) Rule(5)
(III) Rule(6)
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only
(e) I, II and III
Ans. (c)
20. In how many different ways may a class 1 spelunker who has never explored any of the eightcaves before set up a tour of three caves, if she wishes to explore caves Abbott and Caesar?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
Ans. (b)
21. What is the maximum number of caves that a class 3 spelunker who has previously explored only cave Benny may include
in a single tour?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 8
Ans. (b)
22. If x + y = 3 and y/x= 2 then y = ?
(a) 0
(b) 1/2
(c) 1
(d) 3/2
(e) 2
Ans. (e)
23. How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft long and 6 ft wide
(a) 24
(b) 96
(c) 3456
(d) 13824
(e) 14266
24. If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/
(a) 8/27
(b) 4/9
(c) 2/3
(d) 75%
(e) 4/3
Ans. (b)
25. Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of
(a) 30%
(b) 32%
(c) 34%
(d) 35%
(e) 36
Ans. (b)
26. The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g liters.If a liters was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed?
(a)g-a
(b)g/a
(c) a/g
(d) (g-a)/a
(e) (g-a)/g
Ans. (c)
27.If x/y=4 and y is not '0' what % of x is 2x-y
(a)150%
(b)175%
(c)200%
(d)250%
Ans. (b)
28.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15
(b)12
(c)18
(d)10
Ans. (b)
29.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?
(a)12
(b)8
(c)16
(d)6
Ans. (b)
30. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020
(b) 99/10
(c) 0.9
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
31. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins
(b) 20 mins
(c) 8 mins
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
32. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job?
(a) 8 hrs
(b) 7 1/2 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 9 hrs
Ans. (b)
33. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 8
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
34. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
35. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m
(b) 155 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m
(d) 19.25 sq.m
Ans. (a)
SOME QUESTIONS WHEREIN TWO STATEMENTS ARE GIVEN ARE ALSO THERE WHERE YOU HAVE TO TELL WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT
SOME QUESTIONS ALSO APPEARED FROM THE BARRON'S GMAT GUIDE.
PAGE NO. 439 PASSAGE AND QUESTIONS 1 TO 9
PAGE NO. 440-441
PAGE 442 PASSAGE 2
ALSO REFER TO BARRON'S GRE BOOK FOR ADDITIONAL ANALYTICAL QUESTIONS.
PAPER 2--GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Who is the father of computers
2. Expand HTML,DMA,FAT,LAN,WAN,FDDetc
3. Which was intel's first microprocessor
4. Convert 1024 (in decimal) to octa and hexadecimal form
5. First microprocessor was
(a) 8085
(b) 8088
(c) 8086
(d) 80487
6. Give the name of a processor produced by mortorola?
7. What is the full form of WindowsNT ?
8. What is the difference between 8087 and 8086
INFOSYS PLACEMENT PAPERS
2010 February Infosys Placement Paper JBIT Hyderabad Full Paper
1)APTITUDE TEST:
Questions = 70 ; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section its around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. no negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.
Analytical & Logical reasoning:(30 question : 40 minutes)
English section: (40 question : 35 minutes)
Analytical reasoning
1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has
twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?
Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.
2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap.
At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?
Ans: 25.
3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the
second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.
Ans : 25296.
4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are
traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by
25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?
Ans: 60 kmph
5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and
Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth.
You are given a conversation.
Person A-- today is Sunday my name is Anil
Person B -- today is Tuesday, my name is Bill
What day is today?
Ans: Today is Tuesday
Directions 6:10 In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?
Answers 6-10
6 E. 7. C 8. B 9.E 10. D
Directions 11-15: Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether:
(A) statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(B) statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(C) both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) each statement alone is sufficient
(E) statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question
11. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?
1. x + y = 20
2. x = y²
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: C
12. Fifty percent of the articles in a certain magazine are written by staff members. Sixty percent of the articles are
on current affairs. If 75 percent of the articles on current affairs are written by staff members with more than 5
years experience of journalism, how many of the articles on current affairs are written by journalists with more
than 5 years experience?
1. 20 articles are written by staff members.
2. Of the articles on topics other than current affairs, 50 percent are by staff members with less than 5 years experience.
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: A
13. Is xy > 0 ?
1. x/y < 0
2. x + y < 0
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: A
14 One number, n, is selected at random from a set of 10 integers. What is the probability that ½ n + 13 = 0 ?
1. The largest integer in the set is 13.
2. The arithmetic mean of the set is zero.
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: E
15. Is w a whole number?
1. 3w is an odd number.
2. 2w is an even number.
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: B
Directions (Question 16 to 19 ) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
IV. i) There are six friends A,B,C,D,E and F
ii) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Vollyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo
iii) Each owns a different coloured car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.
iv) D plays Polo and owns a yellow coloured car
v) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow coloured car
vi) E owns a white car and plays Badminton
vii) B does not play Tennis, he owns a red coloured car.
viii) A plays Cricket and owns a black car
16. Who plays Volleyball ?
A) B B) C C) F D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Ans: B
17. Which coloured car F owns ?
A) Green B) Blue C) Either Green or Blue D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Ans: B
18. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct ?
A) Yellow - Polo B) Green - Tennis C) Black - Cricket D) Red- Hockey E) None of these
Ans: B
19. In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija
and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja
and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them
are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and violinist ?
A) Jalaja B) Shailaja C) Tanuja D) Pooja
Ans: C
20. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked
10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his
starting point?
(A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21.Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes
7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?
(A) 5 km (B) 7 km (C) 2 km (D) 14 km (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. Laxman went 15 kms from my house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and walked
25 kms and finally turning left covered 20kms. How far was he from his house.
(A) 5 kms (B) 10 kms (C) 40 kms (D) 80 kms (E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. The door of Aditya's house faces the east. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50 metres, then
turns to the right and walks 50 metres, then turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres . Now Aditya
is in which direction from the starting point?
(A) South-East (B) North-East (C) South- West (D) North-West (E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R, and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who is facing
west. Then Q is facing ?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north-east. In which direction does its hour
hand point at 1.30 p.m?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans: C
26. A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then , turning to his right, he walks 30 metres . Then turning to his left,
he walks 20 metres. again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres . How far is he from his initial position?
A. 20 metres B. 30 metres C.60 metres D. 80 metres E None of these
Ans: E
Directions 27-30 :The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favorite style of music. Use this information to answer the following questions to the nearest whole percentage.
27. What percentage of respondents under 31 , indicated that blues in their favorite style?
A. 7.1 B. 7.6 C. 8.3 D. 14.1 E. 7.2
Ans: B
28. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated that jazz is their favorite style?
A. 64 % B. 60% C. 75% D. 36% E. 46%
Ans: A
29. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is heir favorite style of music?
A. 6 % B. 8% C. 22% D. 4% E. 11%
Ans: E
30. What percentage of the total sample were aged21-30?
A. 31 % B. 23% C. 25% D. 14% E. 30%
Ans: C
Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)
Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the groundbreaking, long-term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.
Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday, her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane’s life would take. To this day, Jubilee sits in a chair in Jane’s London home. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.
As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old.
Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead animals through paleontology.
Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan. At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone. But Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study
In July of 1960, Jane and her mother arrived at Gombe National Park in what was then called Tanganyika and is now called Tanzania. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by little, she was able to enter their world.
At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied, stating in her journals that she felt they each had a unique personality.
One of the first significant observations that Jane made during the study was that chimpanzees make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. It was previously thought that humans alone used tools. Also thanks to Jane’s research, we now know that chimps eat meat as well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she has helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are similar. In doing so, she has made us more sympathetic toward these creatures, while helping us to better understand ourselves.
The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in their natural habitat. Research continues to this day in Gombe and is conducted by a team of trained Tanzanians.
Jane’s life has included much more than just her study of the chimps in Tanzania. She pursued a graduate degree while still conducting her study, receiving her Ph.D. from Cambridge University in 1965. In 1984, she received the J. Paul Getty Wildlife Conservation Prize for "helping millions of people understand the importance of wildlife conservation to life on this planet." She has been married twice: first to a photographer and then to the director of National Parks. She has one son.
Dr. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles, has written two books, and has won numerous awards for her groundbreaking work. The Jane Goodall Institute for Wildlife Research, Education, and Conservation was founded in 1977 in California but moved to the Washington, D.C., area in 1998. Its goal is to take the actions necessary to improve the environment for all living things.
Dr. Goodall now travels extensively, giving lectures, visiting zoos and chimp sanctuaries, and talking to young people involved in environmental education. She is truly a great conservationist and an amazing human being.
Read this sentence from the article.
1. 'But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal'. What is an antonym for the word focused?
1. bothered
2. tired
3. disinterested
4. concerned
Ans: C
2. What is the author’s purpose in writing this article?
1. to entertain the reader with stories about chimpanzees
2. to inform the reader of the importance of wildlife conservation
3. to warn the reader about the challenges of working in Africa
4. to describe the work and life of Jane Goodall.
Ans: D
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons Dr. Leakey chose Jane to work with him?
1. She knew a lot about Africa.
2. She knew a lot about African wildlife.
3. She earned the money to travel to Africa on her own.
4. She was interested in studying animals in the wild.
Ans: C
4. Which of the following is NOT true of chimpanzees?
1. Chimpanzees are often comfortable with strangers right away.
2. Chimpanzees eat meat as well as plants and fruit.
3. Chimpanzees use tools to help them get food.
4. Different chimpanzees have different personalities.
Ans: A
5. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly forty years. What does authority mean?
1. an intelligent person
2. one who studies animals
3. a scientist
4. an expert
Ans: B
Read this sentence from the article.
Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
There are some men who seem to be always on the lookout for trouble and, to tell the truth, they are seldom disappointed. Listening to such men one would think that this world is one of the stormiest and most disagreeable places. Yet, after all it is not such a bad place and the difficulty is often in the man who is too thin- skinned. On the other hand, the man who goes out expecting people to be like himself, kind and brotherly, will be surprised at the kindness he meets even in the most unlike quarters. A smile is apt to be met met with a respective smile while the sneer is just as apt to provoke a snarl. Men living in the same neighborhood may live vastly different lives. But it is not the neighborhood which is quarrelsome, but the man within us. And we have it in out power to change our neighborhood into a pleasant one by simply changing our own ways.
6. The passage is about
A) our disagreeable and hostile world
B) a kindly and pleasant world
C) our different and unresponsive world
D) the world and what one makes of it.
Ans: D
7. "..............they are seldom disappointed". The statement denotes that such men
A) welcome difficulties as a morale booster
B) do not have face any trouble
C) manage to keep unruffled in the face of discomforts
D) generally do not fail to come across troubles
Ans: D
8. The author's own view of the world is that it is
A) one of the loveliest and quietest places
B) an unpleasant and turbulent place
C) one's own excessive sensitivity that makes it a bad place
D) a sordid place for those who suffer in life
Ans: C
9. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the expression 'thin-skinned' as sed in the passage?
A) Insensitive
B) Intelligent
C) Awkward
D) Obstinate
Ans: A
10. "On the other hand............. unlikely quarter" The statement shows that people's reaction to our attitude is
A) Generally indifferent
B) surprisingly responsive
C) often adverse
D) mainly favourable
Ans: B
Directions 11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
11.For a few seconds, Madan was.............blinded by the powerful lights of the oncoming car
A) heavily B) largely C) greatly D) powerfully E) totally
Ans: E
12. His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very..............
A) strong B) large C) broad D) vast E) deep
Ans: E
13. The police have................a complaint against four persons
A) entered B) lodged C) registered D) noted E) received
Ans: C
14. The improvement made by changes in the system was ....................and did not warrant the large expenses.
A) large B) small C) minute D) marginal E) uncertain
Ans: D
15. The man who is..........................hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither.
A) persistently B) constantly C) insistently D) consistently E) perpetually
Ans: A
16. He is too...................to be deceived easily
A) strong B) modern C) kind D) honest E) intelligent
Ans: E
17. The Manager gave her his ..... that the complaint would be investigated
A. assurance B. suggestion C. avowal D. support
Ans: A
18. I am feeling ...... better today.
A. rather B. too C. fairly D. very
Ans: C
Direction Questions19-26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inference. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
mark your answer as :
A. if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage
B. if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false
D. if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and
E. if you think inference is ' definitely false' i.e. , it contradicts the given facts.
Passage I
Urban services have not expanded fast enough to cope with urban expansion. Low investment allocation have tended top be under spent. Both public( e. g. water and sewage) and private (e.g. low-income area housing) infrastructure quality has declined. this impact of the environment in which children live and the supporting services available to them when they fall ill, seems clear. The decline in average food availability and the rise in absolute poverty point in the same satisfactory direction
19. There is nothing to boast about urban services
Ans: A
20. The public transport system is in the hands of private sector.
Ans: C
21. Birth rate is higher in Urban areas compared to rural areas.
Ans: C
22. Low-cost urban housing is one of the priorities
Ans: B
23 The environment around plays an important role on the health status.
Ans: A
Passage II
Though the state cultivate only 3.2 lakh tonnes of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes. the government has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper . An experiment which was done in this regard last year has proved successful.
24. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports.
Ans: A
25. The state also exports good quality grapes
Ans: C
26. The state also cultivates a large number of medium quality mangoes.
Ans: E
Direction27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'
27. I going there / will not solve / this complicated problem / No error
A B C D
Ans : A
28. You can get /all the information you want / in this book / No error
A B C D
Ans : A
29. The bus could not / ascend the steep hill / because it was in the wrong gears / No error
A B C D
Ans : C
30.No stronger / a figure than his / is prescribed in the history / No error
A B C D
Ans : C
31. most people would have /attended the union meeting / if they had / longer notice of it / No error
A B C D E
Ans : D
32. And though one did not / quite believe his claim / one saw no harm / in granting him permission / No error
A B C D E
Ans: E
Directions33 : In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'
33. The problems of translation are still remain.
A. are remain. B. will remained C. will still remain. D. No Correction required
Ans : C
34. It is ten years since I have begun living here
A. begun B. had begun C. began D. No Correction required
Ans : C
35. Education is a strong instrument for moldings the character of the young.
A. striking B. powerful C. potent D. No Correction required
Ans : B
36. He gave the I.A.S. examination in all seriousness.
A. appeared B. took C. undertook D. No Correction required
Ans: B
37. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.
A. mind blank B. eyes covered C. hands full D. No Correction required
Ans: D
38. The young hikers went as far as they finally got lost in the valley.
A. so far that B. too far that C. so far as that D. No Correction required
Ans: A
39. He stopped to work an hour ago
A. to working B. to have worked C. working D. No Correction required
Ans : C
40. The fact finding committee has so far not made any advancement.
A. progress B. improvement C. stride D. No Correction required
Ans: A
PUZZLES
Infosys Solved Puzzles ( 1- 100 )
1.There is a escalator and 2 persons move down it.A takes 50 steps and B takes 75 steps while the escalator is moving down. Given that the time taken by A to take 1 step is equal to time taken by B to take 3 steps. Find the no. of steps in the escalator while it is staionary.
Solution (not sure):
If A takes 1 step in one second, then B takes 3 steps in one second. If A takes t1 seconds to take 50 steps, then B takes 150 steps in t1 seconds.
For B, to take 150 steps he requires t1 seconds,
Then to take 75 steps he requires t1/2 seconds.
So now, s1=50, t1 = t1 & s2=75, t2=t1/2
ans= (s1*t2 ~ s2*t1) / (t1 ~ t2) which gives 100.
so 100 steps is the answer
2. If 5/2 artists make 5/2 paintings using 5/2 canvases in 5/2 days then how many artists r required to make 25 paintings using 25 canvases in 25 days?
3. If the digits of my present age are reversed then i get the age of my son.If 1 year ago my age was twice as that of my son.Find my present age.
ans. father-73, son-37
4. There are 6561 balls out of them 1 is heavy.Find the min. no. of times the balls have to be weighed for finding out the haevy ball.
ans. 8
5. If i walk with 30 miles/hr i reach 1 hour before and if i walk with 20 miles/hr i reach 1 hour late.Find the distance between 2 points and the exact time of reaching destination is 11 am then find the speed with which it walks.
ans. 120miles and 24 miles/hr
6. There r four face cards (J,Q,K,A) all of different types(diamond,club,spade,heart) and some conditions r given.find the order of cards
ans. king -> jack -> queen -> ace
heart diamond spade club
7. If A,B,C,D,E r 5 members of a family.4 of them give true statements :
1. E is my mother in law
2. C is my son in law's brother
3. B is my father's brother
4. A is my brother's wife
Who made the stmt. and what r the realtions among them
ans. E
|
A<-->B--C
|
D
<--> denotes husband-wife
-- denotes brothers
8. The product of 5 different temperatures is 12.If all of then r integers then find all the temperatures
ans. -2,-1,1,2,3
9.There r 9 cities numbered 1 to 9.From how many cities the flight can start so as to reach the city 8 either directly or indirectly such the path formed is divisible by 3.
eg. 1368-Flights goes through 1-3-6-8.
10. If i do this puzzle i find it to be hard than the last puzzle that i did before that after that..............very complex stmt.
Is that puzzle difficult,easy,can't say or depends on the no. of puzzles
11. Replace each letter by a digit. Each letter must be represented by the same digit and no beginning letter of a word can be 0.
O N E
O N E
O N E
O N E
-------
T E N
-------
Ans: 0 =1, N = 8 ,E = 2, T = 7.
12. Ann, Boobie, Cathy and Dave are at their monthly business meeting. Their occupations are author, biologist, chemist and doctor, but not necessarily in that order. Dave just told the biologist that Cathy was on her way with doughnuts. Ann is sitting across from the doctor and next to the chemist. The doctor was thinking that Boobie was a goofy name for parent's to choose,but didn't say anything. What is each person's occupation?
Ans: Since Dave spoke to the biologist and Ann sat next to the chemist and across the doctor, Cathy must be the author and Ann the biologist. The doctor didn't speak, but David did, so Bobbie is the doctor and Dave the chemist.
13. Sometime after 10:00 PM a murder took place. A witness claimed that the clock must have stopped at the time of the shooting. It was later found that the postion of both the hands were the same but their positions had interchanged. Tell the time of the shooting (both actual and claimed).
Ans: Time of shooting = 11:54 PM Claimed Time = 10:59 PM.
14. Next number in the series is 1 , 2 , 4 , 13 , 31 , 112 , ?
Ans: 224.
No number has digits more than 4. All of them are 1 , 2, 4, 8 , 16 , 32 , 64 converted to numbers in base 5.
15. Shahrukh speaks truth only in the morning and lies in the afternoon, whereas Salman speaks truth only in the afternoon. A says that B is Shahrukh. Is it morning or afternoon and who is A - Shahrukh or Salman?
Ans: Afternoon.A is Salman.
16. Two trains starting at same time, one from Bangalore to Mysore and other in opposite direction arrive at their destination 1 hr and 4 hours respectively after passing each other. How nuch faster is one train from other?
Ans: Twice.
17. There are 6 volumes of books on a rack kept in order ( ie vol.1, vol. 2 and so on ). Give the position after the following changes were noticed. All books have been changed Vol.5 was directly to the right of Vol.2 Vol.4 has Vol.6 to its left and both weren't at Vol.3's place.Vol.1 has Vol.3 on right and Vol.5 on left. An even numbered volume is at Vol.5's place Find the order in which the books are kept now.
Ans: 2, 5,1,3,6,4.
18. I bought a car with a peculiar 5 digit numbered licence plate which on reversing could still be read. On reversing value is increased by 78633.Whats the original number if all digits were different?
Ans: Only 0 1 6 8 and 9 can be read upside down. So on rearranging these digits, we get the answer as 10968.
19. The shape in the sketch below is that of a square attached to half of a similar square. Divide it into four equal pieces.
Ans: Hint : The figure can be divided into 12 equal triangles.
20) There are two balls touching each other circumferencically. The radius of the big ball is 4 times the diameter of the small all. The outer small ball rotates in anticlockwise direction circumferencically over the bigger one at the rate of 16 rev/sec. The bigger wheel also rotates anticlockwise at N rev/sec. What is 'N' for the horizontal line from the centre of small wheel always is horizontal.
21)
1 2 3 4
+ 3 4 5 5
----------
4 6 8 9
- 2 3 4 5
----------
2 3 4 4
+ 1 2 5 4
------------
3 6 9 8
------------
Q) Strike off any digit from each number in seven rows (need not be at same place) and combine the same operations with 3 digit numbers to get the same addition. After this strike off another digit from all and add all the No.s to get the same 2 digit No. perform the same process again with 1 digit No.s. Give the ' no.s in 7 rows at each stage.
22) There is a safe with a 5 digit No. The 4th digit is 4 greater thansecond digit, while 3rd digit is 3 less than 2nd digit. The 1st digit is thrice the last digit. There are 3 pairs whose sum is 11. Find the number.
Ans: 65292.
23) there are 2 guards Bal and Pal walking on the side of a wall of a wearhouse(12m X 11m) in opposite directions. They meet at a point and Bal says to Pal "See you again in the other side". After a few moments of walking Bal decides to go back for a smoke but he changes his direction again to his previous one after 10 minutes of walking in the other(opposite) direction remembering that Pal will be waiting for to meet. If Bal and Pal walk 8 and 11 feet respectively, how much distance they would have travelled before meeting again.
24. 13 kigs and 6 libs can produce 510 tors in 10 hrs, 8 kigs and 14 libs can produce 484 tors in 12 hrs.
Find the rate of production of tors for kigs and libs. Express the answer in tors/hr.
25)
xxx)xxxxx(xxx
3xx
-------
xxx
x3x
-------
xxx
3xx
-------
Q) Find the 5 digit No.
Hint: 5 is used atleast once in the calculation.
26) A fly is there 1 feet below the ceiling right across a wall length is 30m at equal distance from both the ends. There is a spider 1 feet above floor right across the long wall eqidistant from both the ends. If the width of the room is 12m and 12m, what distance is to be travelled by the spider to catch the fly, if it takes the shortest path.
27) Ramesh sit around a round table with some other men. He has one rupee more than his right person and this person in turn has 1 rupee more than the person to his right and so on, Ramesh decided to give 1 rupee to his right & he in turn 2 rupees to his right and 3 rupees to his right & so on. This process went on till a person has 'no money' to give to his right. At this time he has 4 times the money to his right person. How many men are there along with Ramesh and what is the money with poorest fellow.
28)Question related to probabilities of removing the red ball from a basket, given that two balls are removed from the basket and the other ball is red. The basket contains blue,red,yellow balls.
29)Venkat has 1boy&2daughters.The product of these children age is 72.The sum of their ages give the door numberof Venkat.Boy is elder of three.Can you tell the ages of all the three.
30)L:says all of my other 4 friends have money
M:says that P said that exact one has money
N:says that L said that precisely two have money
O:says that M said that 3 of others have money.
P:Land N said that they have money.
All are liers.
Who has money & who doesn't have?
31)Post man has a data of name surname door number, pet name of 4 families. But only one is correct for each family. There are a set of statements & questions.
33) 4 couples have a party. Depending on the set of statements, find who insulted whom and who is the host of the party.
34) 5 women given some of their heights (tall,medium,short) Hair( long, plainted), stards(Black or Brown), sari,2 medium,2-short.Tall->no sari.Plainted->medium. Answer the combinations.
35) A person has to go both Northwards & Southwards in search of a job. He decides to go by the first train he encounters.There are trains for every 15 min both southwards and northwards. First train towards south is at 6:00 A.M. and that towards North is at 6:10. If the person arrives at any random time, what is the probability that he gets into a train towards North.
36) A person has his own coach&. Whenever he goes to railway station he takes his coach. One day he was supposed to reach the railway station at 5 O'clock. But he finished his work early and reached at 3 O'clock. Then he rung up his residence and asked to send the coach immediately. He came to know that the coach has left just now to the railway station. He thought that the coach has left just now to the railway station. He thought that he should not waste his time and started moving towards his residence at the speed of 3 miles/hr. On the way, he gets the coach and reaches home at 6 o'clock. How far is his residence from railway station.
37) Radha,Geeta & Revathi went for a picnic. After a few days they forgot the date, day and month on which they went to picnic. Radha said that it was on Thursday, May 8 and Geeta said that it was Thursday May 10. Revathi said Friday Jun 8. Now one of them told all things wrongly, others one thing wrong and the last two things wrongly. If April 1st is tuesday, what is the right day, date and month?
38. There is 66x33m rectangular area. Ram is 11/8 times faster than Krishna. Both of them started walking at opposite ends and they met at some point then, Ram said "See you in the other end" Then they continued walking. After some time Ram thought he will have tea so he turned back walked back 15 meters then he changed his mind again andcontinued walking. How much Krishna has traveled by the time they meet?
39. There are 5 burglars and once went to a bakery to rob it obviously The first guy ate 1/2 of the total bread and 1/2 of the bread. The second guy ate 1/2 of the remaining and 1/2 of the bread. The third guy ,fourth guy and fifth guy did the same. After fifth guy there is no bread left out. How many bread are there?
40. All members belonging to D are members of A.
All members belonging to E are members of D.
All members belonging to C are members of both A & D.
Some members of A does not belong to D. All members belonging to D are members of E. 5 questions are there.
41. Write each statements true or false:-
1. The sum of the 1st three statements and the 2nd false statement gives the true statement.
2.The no. of true statements false statement.
3. The sum of 2nd true statement and 1st false statement gives the first true statement.
4. There are at most 3 false statements.
5.There is no two consecutive true statements.
42. There are twelve consecutive flags at an equal interval of distance. A man passes the 8th flag in 8 seconds. How many more seconds will he take to pass the remaining 4 flags?
43. A person has to cover the fixed distance through his horses. There are five horses in the cart. They ran at the full potential for the 24 hours continuously at constant speed and then two of the horses ran away to some other direction. So he reached the destination 48 hours behind the schedule. If the five horses would have run 50 miles more, then the person would have been only 24 hours late. Find the distance of the destination.
44. A boat M leaves shore A and at the same time boat B leaves shore B. They move across the river. They met at 500 yards away from A and after that they met 300 yards away from shore B without halting at shores. Find the distance between the shore A & B.
45. A person was going through train from Bombay to Pune. After every five minutes he finds a train coming from opposite direction. Velocity of trains are equal of either direction. If the person reached Pune in one hour then how many trains he saw in the journey?
46. Food grains are to be sent to city from godown. Owner wants to reach the food grains at 11 O' Clock in the city. If a truck travels at a speed of 30km/hr then he will reach the city one hour earlier. If the truck travels at a speed of 20km/h then he will reach the city one hour late. Find the distance between the godown to city. Also with which speed the truck should travel in order to reach at exactly 11 'O clock.
47. There are five persons A,B,C,D,E whose birthdays occur at the consecutive days. Birthday of A is some days or day before C & birthday of B is exactly the same days or day after E. D is two days older than E. If birth day of C is on Wednesday then find out the birthdays of other.
48. Persons say these statements.
A says either Democratic or liberal wins the elections.
B says Democratic wins.
C says neither democratic nor liberal wins the election.
Of these only one is wrong. Who wins the election?
49. Six persons A,B,C,D,E &F went to soldier cinema. There are six consecutive seats. A sits in the first seat followed by B, followed by C and so on. If A taken on of the six seats, then B should sit adjacent to A. C should sit adjacent to A or B. D should sit adjacent to A, B or C and so on. How many possibilities are there ?
50. Suppose there are four grades A, B, C, D. (A is the best and D is the worst) 4 persons Jack, Jean, Poul and Lucy wrote the final exam and made the statements like this:-
1. Jack: If I will get A then Lucy will get D.
2. Lucy: If I will get C then Jack will get D.
Jack grade is better than Poul grade.
3. Jean: If Jean doesn't get A then Jack will not get A.
4. Poul: If Jack get A, then Jean will not get B, Lucy will get C, I won't either A or B.
If all the above statements are true, then which person will get which grade?
WIPRO PLACEMENT PAPERS
Questions = 70 ; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section its around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. no negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.
Analytical & Logical reasoning:(30 question : 40 minutes)
English section: (40 question : 35 minutes)
Analytical reasoning
1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has
twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?
Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.
2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap.
At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?
Ans: 25.
3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the
second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.
Ans : 25296.
4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are
traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by
25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?
Ans: 60 kmph
5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and
Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth.
You are given a conversation.
Person A-- today is Sunday my name is Anil
Person B -- today is Tuesday, my name is Bill
What day is today?
Ans: Today is Tuesday
Directions 6:10 In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?
Answers 6-10
6 E. 7. C 8. B 9.E 10. D
Directions 11-15: Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether:
(A) statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(B) statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(C) both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) each statement alone is sufficient
(E) statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question
11. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?
1. x + y = 20
2. x = y²
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: C
12. Fifty percent of the articles in a certain magazine are written by staff members. Sixty percent of the articles are
on current affairs. If 75 percent of the articles on current affairs are written by staff members with more than 5
years experience of journalism, how many of the articles on current affairs are written by journalists with more
than 5 years experience?
1. 20 articles are written by staff members.
2. Of the articles on topics other than current affairs, 50 percent are by staff members with less than 5 years experience.
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: A
13. Is xy > 0 ?
1. x/y < 0
2. x + y < 0
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: A
14 One number, n, is selected at random from a set of 10 integers. What is the probability that ½ n + 13 = 0 ?
1. The largest integer in the set is 13.
2. The arithmetic mean of the set is zero.
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: E
15. Is w a whole number?
1. 3w is an odd number.
2. 2w is an even number.
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
Ans: B
Directions (Question 16 to 19 ) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
IV. i) There are six friends A,B,C,D,E and F
ii) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Vollyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo
iii) Each owns a different coloured car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.
iv) D plays Polo and owns a yellow coloured car
v) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow coloured car
vi) E owns a white car and plays Badminton
vii) B does not play Tennis, he owns a red coloured car.
viii) A plays Cricket and owns a black car
16. Who plays Volleyball ?
A) B B) C C) F D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Ans: B
17. Which coloured car F owns ?
A) Green B) Blue C) Either Green or Blue D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Ans: B
18. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct ?
A) Yellow - Polo B) Green - Tennis C) Black - Cricket D) Red- Hockey E) None of these
Ans: B
19. In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija
and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja
and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them
are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and violinist ?
A) Jalaja B) Shailaja C) Tanuja D) Pooja
Ans: C
20. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked
10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his
starting point?
(A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21.Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes
7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?
(A) 5 km (B) 7 km (C) 2 km (D) 14 km (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. Laxman went 15 kms from my house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and walked
25 kms and finally turning left covered 20kms. How far was he from his house.
(A) 5 kms (B) 10 kms (C) 40 kms (D) 80 kms (E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. The door of Aditya's house faces the east. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50 metres, then
turns to the right and walks 50 metres, then turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres . Now Aditya
is in which direction from the starting point?
(A) South-East (B) North-East (C) South- West (D) North-West (E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R, and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who is facing
west. Then Q is facing ?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north-east. In which direction does its hour
hand point at 1.30 p.m?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans: C
26. A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then , turning to his right, he walks 30 metres . Then turning to his left,
he walks 20 metres. again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres . How far is he from his initial position?
A. 20 metres B. 30 metres C.60 metres D. 80 metres E None of these
Ans: E
Directions 27-30 :The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favorite style of music. Use this information to answer the following questions to the nearest whole percentage.
27. What percentage of respondents under 31 , indicated that blues in their favorite style?
A. 7.1 B. 7.6 C. 8.3 D. 14.1 E. 7.2
Ans: B
28. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated that jazz is their favorite style?
A. 64 % B. 60% C. 75% D. 36% E. 46%
Ans: A
29. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is heir favorite style of music?
A. 6 % B. 8% C. 22% D. 4% E. 11%
Ans: E
30. What percentage of the total sample were aged21-30?
A. 31 % B. 23% C. 25% D. 14% E. 30%
Ans: C
Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)
Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the groundbreaking, long-term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.
Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday, her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane’s life would take. To this day, Jubilee sits in a chair in Jane’s London home. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.
As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old.
Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead animals through paleontology.
Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan. At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone. But Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study
In July of 1960, Jane and her mother arrived at Gombe National Park in what was then called Tanganyika and is now called Tanzania. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by little, she was able to enter their world.
At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied, stating in her journals that she felt they each had a unique personality.
One of the first significant observations that Jane made during the study was that chimpanzees make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. It was previously thought that humans alone used tools. Also thanks to Jane’s research, we now know that chimps eat meat as well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she has helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are similar. In doing so, she has made us more sympathetic toward these creatures, while helping us to better understand ourselves.
The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in their natural habitat. Research continues to this day in Gombe and is conducted by a team of trained Tanzanians.
Jane’s life has included much more than just her study of the chimps in Tanzania. She pursued a graduate degree while still conducting her study, receiving her Ph.D. from Cambridge University in 1965. In 1984, she received the J. Paul Getty Wildlife Conservation Prize for "helping millions of people understand the importance of wildlife conservation to life on this planet." She has been married twice: first to a photographer and then to the director of National Parks. She has one son.
Dr. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles, has written two books, and has won numerous awards for her groundbreaking work. The Jane Goodall Institute for Wildlife Research, Education, and Conservation was founded in 1977 in California but moved to the Washington, D.C., area in 1998. Its goal is to take the actions necessary to improve the environment for all living things.
Dr. Goodall now travels extensively, giving lectures, visiting zoos and chimp sanctuaries, and talking to young people involved in environmental education. She is truly a great conservationist and an amazing human being.
Read this sentence from the article.
1. 'But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal'. What is an antonym for the word focused?
1. bothered
2. tired
3. disinterested
4. concerned
Ans: C
2. What is the author’s purpose in writing this article?
1. to entertain the reader with stories about chimpanzees
2. to inform the reader of the importance of wildlife conservation
3. to warn the reader about the challenges of working in Africa
4. to describe the work and life of Jane Goodall.
Ans: D
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons Dr. Leakey chose Jane to work with him?
1. She knew a lot about Africa.
2. She knew a lot about African wildlife.
3. She earned the money to travel to Africa on her own.
4. She was interested in studying animals in the wild.
Ans: C
4. Which of the following is NOT true of chimpanzees?
1. Chimpanzees are often comfortable with strangers right away.
2. Chimpanzees eat meat as well as plants and fruit.
3. Chimpanzees use tools to help them get food.
4. Different chimpanzees have different personalities.
Ans: A
5. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly forty years. What does authority mean?
1. an intelligent person
2. one who studies animals
3. a scientist
4. an expert
Ans: B
Read this sentence from the article.
Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
There are some men who seem to be always on the lookout for trouble and, to tell the truth, they are seldom disappointed. Listening to such men one would think that this world is one of the stormiest and most disagreeable places. Yet, after all it is not such a bad place and the difficulty is often in the man who is too thin- skinned. On the other hand, the man who goes out expecting people to be like himself, kind and brotherly, will be surprised at the kindness he meets even in the most unlike quarters. A smile is apt to be met met with a respective smile while the sneer is just as apt to provoke a snarl. Men living in the same neighborhood may live vastly different lives. But it is not the neighborhood which is quarrelsome, but the man within us. And we have it in out power to change our neighborhood into a pleasant one by simply changing our own ways.
6. The passage is about
A) our disagreeable and hostile world
B) a kindly and pleasant world
C) our different and unresponsive world
D) the world and what one makes of it.
Ans: D
7. "..............they are seldom disappointed". The statement denotes that such men
A) welcome difficulties as a morale booster
B) do not have face any trouble
C) manage to keep unruffled in the face of discomforts
D) generally do not fail to come across troubles
Ans: D
8. The author's own view of the world is that it is
A) one of the loveliest and quietest places
B) an unpleasant and turbulent place
C) one's own excessive sensitivity that makes it a bad place
D) a sordid place for those who suffer in life
Ans: C
9. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the expression 'thin-skinned' as sed in the passage?
A) Insensitive
B) Intelligent
C) Awkward
D) Obstinate
Ans: A
10. "On the other hand............. unlikely quarter" The statement shows that people's reaction to our attitude is
A) Generally indifferent
B) surprisingly responsive
C) often adverse
D) mainly favourable
Ans: B
Directions 11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
11.For a few seconds, Madan was.............blinded by the powerful lights of the oncoming car
A) heavily B) largely C) greatly D) powerfully E) totally
Ans: E
12. His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very..............
A) strong B) large C) broad D) vast E) deep
Ans: E
13. The police have................a complaint against four persons
A) entered B) lodged C) registered D) noted E) received
Ans: C
14. The improvement made by changes in the system was ....................and did not warrant the large expenses.
A) large B) small C) minute D) marginal E) uncertain
Ans: D
15. The man who is..........................hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither.
A) persistently B) constantly C) insistently D) consistently E) perpetually
Ans: A
16. He is too...................to be deceived easily
A) strong B) modern C) kind D) honest E) intelligent
Ans: E
17. The Manager gave her his ..... that the complaint would be investigated
A. assurance B. suggestion C. avowal D. support
Ans: A
18. I am feeling ...... better today.
A. rather B. too C. fairly D. very
Ans: C
Direction Questions19-26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inference. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
mark your answer as :
A. if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage
B. if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false
D. if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and
E. if you think inference is ' definitely false' i.e. , it contradicts the given facts.
Passage I
Urban services have not expanded fast enough to cope with urban expansion. Low investment allocation have tended top be under spent. Both public( e. g. water and sewage) and private (e.g. low-income area housing) infrastructure quality has declined. this impact of the environment in which children live and the supporting services available to them when they fall ill, seems clear. The decline in average food availability and the rise in absolute poverty point in the same satisfactory direction
19. There is nothing to boast about urban services
Ans: A
20. The public transport system is in the hands of private sector.
Ans: C
21. Birth rate is higher in Urban areas compared to rural areas.
Ans: C
22. Low-cost urban housing is one of the priorities
Ans: B
23 The environment around plays an important role on the health status.
Ans: A
Passage II
Though the state cultivate only 3.2 lakh tonnes of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes. the government has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper . An experiment which was done in this regard last year has proved successful.
24. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports.
Ans: A
25. The state also exports good quality grapes
Ans: C
26. The state also cultivates a large number of medium quality mangoes.
Ans: E
Direction27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'
27. I going there / will not solve / this complicated problem / No error
A B C D
Ans : A
28. You can get /all the information you want / in this book / No error
A B C D
Ans : A
29. The bus could not / ascend the steep hill / because it was in the wrong gears / No error
A B C D
Ans : C
30.No stronger / a figure than his / is prescribed in the history / No error
A B C D
Ans : C
31. most people would have /attended the union meeting / if they had / longer notice of it / No error
A B C D E
Ans : D
32. And though one did not / quite believe his claim / one saw no harm / in granting him permission / No error
A B C D E
Ans: E
Directions33 : In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'
33. The problems of translation are still remain.
A. are remain. B. will remained C. will still remain. D. No Correction required
Ans : C
34. It is ten years since I have begun living here
A. begun B. had begun C. began D. No Correction required
Ans : C
35. Education is a strong instrument for moldings the character of the young.
A. striking B. powerful C. potent D. No Correction required
Ans : B
36. He gave the I.A.S. examination in all seriousness.
A. appeared B. took C. undertook D. No Correction required
Ans: B
37. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.
A. mind blank B. eyes covered C. hands full D. No Correction required
Ans: D
38. The young hikers went as far as they finally got lost in the valley.
A. so far that B. too far that C. so far as that D. No Correction required
Ans: A
39. He stopped to work an hour ago
A. to working B. to have worked C. working D. No Correction required
Ans : C
40. The fact finding committee has so far not made any advancement.
A. progress B. improvement C. stride D. No Correction required
Ans: A
PUZZLES
Infosys Solved Puzzles ( 1- 100 )
1.There is a escalator and 2 persons move down it.A takes 50 steps and B takes 75 steps while the escalator is moving down. Given that the time taken by A to take 1 step is equal to time taken by B to take 3 steps. Find the no. of steps in the escalator while it is staionary.
Solution (not sure):
If A takes 1 step in one second, then B takes 3 steps in one second. If A takes t1 seconds to take 50 steps, then B takes 150 steps in t1 seconds.
For B, to take 150 steps he requires t1 seconds,
Then to take 75 steps he requires t1/2 seconds.
So now, s1=50, t1 = t1 & s2=75, t2=t1/2
ans= (s1*t2 ~ s2*t1) / (t1 ~ t2) which gives 100.
so 100 steps is the answer
2. If 5/2 artists make 5/2 paintings using 5/2 canvases in 5/2 days then how many artists r required to make 25 paintings using 25 canvases in 25 days?
3. If the digits of my present age are reversed then i get the age of my son.If 1 year ago my age was twice as that of my son.Find my present age.
ans. father-73, son-37
4. There are 6561 balls out of them 1 is heavy.Find the min. no. of times the balls have to be weighed for finding out the haevy ball.
ans. 8
5. If i walk with 30 miles/hr i reach 1 hour before and if i walk with 20 miles/hr i reach 1 hour late.Find the distance between 2 points and the exact time of reaching destination is 11 am then find the speed with which it walks.
ans. 120miles and 24 miles/hr
6. There r four face cards (J,Q,K,A) all of different types(diamond,club,spade,heart) and some conditions r given.find the order of cards
ans. king -> jack -> queen -> ace
heart diamond spade club
7. If A,B,C,D,E r 5 members of a family.4 of them give true statements :
1. E is my mother in law
2. C is my son in law's brother
3. B is my father's brother
4. A is my brother's wife
Who made the stmt. and what r the realtions among them
ans. E
|
A<-->B--C
|
D
<--> denotes husband-wife
-- denotes brothers
8. The product of 5 different temperatures is 12.If all of then r integers then find all the temperatures
ans. -2,-1,1,2,3
9.There r 9 cities numbered 1 to 9.From how many cities the flight can start so as to reach the city 8 either directly or indirectly such the path formed is divisible by 3.
eg. 1368-Flights goes through 1-3-6-8.
10. If i do this puzzle i find it to be hard than the last puzzle that i did before that after that..............very complex stmt.
Is that puzzle difficult,easy,can't say or depends on the no. of puzzles
11. Replace each letter by a digit. Each letter must be represented by the same digit and no beginning letter of a word can be 0.
O N E
O N E
O N E
O N E
-------
T E N
-------
Ans: 0 =1, N = 8 ,E = 2, T = 7.
12. Ann, Boobie, Cathy and Dave are at their monthly business meeting. Their occupations are author, biologist, chemist and doctor, but not necessarily in that order. Dave just told the biologist that Cathy was on her way with doughnuts. Ann is sitting across from the doctor and next to the chemist. The doctor was thinking that Boobie was a goofy name for parent's to choose,but didn't say anything. What is each person's occupation?
Ans: Since Dave spoke to the biologist and Ann sat next to the chemist and across the doctor, Cathy must be the author and Ann the biologist. The doctor didn't speak, but David did, so Bobbie is the doctor and Dave the chemist.
13. Sometime after 10:00 PM a murder took place. A witness claimed that the clock must have stopped at the time of the shooting. It was later found that the postion of both the hands were the same but their positions had interchanged. Tell the time of the shooting (both actual and claimed).
Ans: Time of shooting = 11:54 PM Claimed Time = 10:59 PM.
14. Next number in the series is 1 , 2 , 4 , 13 , 31 , 112 , ?
Ans: 224.
No number has digits more than 4. All of them are 1 , 2, 4, 8 , 16 , 32 , 64 converted to numbers in base 5.
15. Shahrukh speaks truth only in the morning and lies in the afternoon, whereas Salman speaks truth only in the afternoon. A says that B is Shahrukh. Is it morning or afternoon and who is A - Shahrukh or Salman?
Ans: Afternoon.A is Salman.
16. Two trains starting at same time, one from Bangalore to Mysore and other in opposite direction arrive at their destination 1 hr and 4 hours respectively after passing each other. How nuch faster is one train from other?
Ans: Twice.
17. There are 6 volumes of books on a rack kept in order ( ie vol.1, vol. 2 and so on ). Give the position after the following changes were noticed. All books have been changed Vol.5 was directly to the right of Vol.2 Vol.4 has Vol.6 to its left and both weren't at Vol.3's place.Vol.1 has Vol.3 on right and Vol.5 on left. An even numbered volume is at Vol.5's place Find the order in which the books are kept now.
Ans: 2, 5,1,3,6,4.
18. I bought a car with a peculiar 5 digit numbered licence plate which on reversing could still be read. On reversing value is increased by 78633.Whats the original number if all digits were different?
Ans: Only 0 1 6 8 and 9 can be read upside down. So on rearranging these digits, we get the answer as 10968.
19. The shape in the sketch below is that of a square attached to half of a similar square. Divide it into four equal pieces.
Ans: Hint : The figure can be divided into 12 equal triangles.
20) There are two balls touching each other circumferencically. The radius of the big ball is 4 times the diameter of the small all. The outer small ball rotates in anticlockwise direction circumferencically over the bigger one at the rate of 16 rev/sec. The bigger wheel also rotates anticlockwise at N rev/sec. What is 'N' for the horizontal line from the centre of small wheel always is horizontal.
21)
1 2 3 4
+ 3 4 5 5
----------
4 6 8 9
- 2 3 4 5
----------
2 3 4 4
+ 1 2 5 4
------------
3 6 9 8
------------
Q) Strike off any digit from each number in seven rows (need not be at same place) and combine the same operations with 3 digit numbers to get the same addition. After this strike off another digit from all and add all the No.s to get the same 2 digit No. perform the same process again with 1 digit No.s. Give the ' no.s in 7 rows at each stage.
22) There is a safe with a 5 digit No. The 4th digit is 4 greater thansecond digit, while 3rd digit is 3 less than 2nd digit. The 1st digit is thrice the last digit. There are 3 pairs whose sum is 11. Find the number.
Ans: 65292.
23) there are 2 guards Bal and Pal walking on the side of a wall of a wearhouse(12m X 11m) in opposite directions. They meet at a point and Bal says to Pal "See you again in the other side". After a few moments of walking Bal decides to go back for a smoke but he changes his direction again to his previous one after 10 minutes of walking in the other(opposite) direction remembering that Pal will be waiting for to meet. If Bal and Pal walk 8 and 11 feet respectively, how much distance they would have travelled before meeting again.
24. 13 kigs and 6 libs can produce 510 tors in 10 hrs, 8 kigs and 14 libs can produce 484 tors in 12 hrs.
Find the rate of production of tors for kigs and libs. Express the answer in tors/hr.
25)
xxx)xxxxx(xxx
3xx
-------
xxx
x3x
-------
xxx
3xx
-------
Q) Find the 5 digit No.
Hint: 5 is used atleast once in the calculation.
26) A fly is there 1 feet below the ceiling right across a wall length is 30m at equal distance from both the ends. There is a spider 1 feet above floor right across the long wall eqidistant from both the ends. If the width of the room is 12m and 12m, what distance is to be travelled by the spider to catch the fly, if it takes the shortest path.
27) Ramesh sit around a round table with some other men. He has one rupee more than his right person and this person in turn has 1 rupee more than the person to his right and so on, Ramesh decided to give 1 rupee to his right & he in turn 2 rupees to his right and 3 rupees to his right & so on. This process went on till a person has 'no money' to give to his right. At this time he has 4 times the money to his right person. How many men are there along with Ramesh and what is the money with poorest fellow.
28)Question related to probabilities of removing the red ball from a basket, given that two balls are removed from the basket and the other ball is red. The basket contains blue,red,yellow balls.
29)Venkat has 1boy&2daughters.The product of these children age is 72.The sum of their ages give the door numberof Venkat.Boy is elder of three.Can you tell the ages of all the three.
30)L:says all of my other 4 friends have money
M:says that P said that exact one has money
N:says that L said that precisely two have money
O:says that M said that 3 of others have money.
P:Land N said that they have money.
All are liers.
Who has money & who doesn't have?
31)Post man has a data of name surname door number, pet name of 4 families. But only one is correct for each family. There are a set of statements & questions.
33) 4 couples have a party. Depending on the set of statements, find who insulted whom and who is the host of the party.
34) 5 women given some of their heights (tall,medium,short) Hair( long, plainted), stards(Black or Brown), sari,2 medium,2-short.Tall->no sari.Plainted->medium. Answer the combinations.
35) A person has to go both Northwards & Southwards in search of a job. He decides to go by the first train he encounters.There are trains for every 15 min both southwards and northwards. First train towards south is at 6:00 A.M. and that towards North is at 6:10. If the person arrives at any random time, what is the probability that he gets into a train towards North.
36) A person has his own coach&. Whenever he goes to railway station he takes his coach. One day he was supposed to reach the railway station at 5 O'clock. But he finished his work early and reached at 3 O'clock. Then he rung up his residence and asked to send the coach immediately. He came to know that the coach has left just now to the railway station. He thought that the coach has left just now to the railway station. He thought that he should not waste his time and started moving towards his residence at the speed of 3 miles/hr. On the way, he gets the coach and reaches home at 6 o'clock. How far is his residence from railway station.
37) Radha,Geeta & Revathi went for a picnic. After a few days they forgot the date, day and month on which they went to picnic. Radha said that it was on Thursday, May 8 and Geeta said that it was Thursday May 10. Revathi said Friday Jun 8. Now one of them told all things wrongly, others one thing wrong and the last two things wrongly. If April 1st is tuesday, what is the right day, date and month?
38. There is 66x33m rectangular area. Ram is 11/8 times faster than Krishna. Both of them started walking at opposite ends and they met at some point then, Ram said "See you in the other end" Then they continued walking. After some time Ram thought he will have tea so he turned back walked back 15 meters then he changed his mind again andcontinued walking. How much Krishna has traveled by the time they meet?
39. There are 5 burglars and once went to a bakery to rob it obviously The first guy ate 1/2 of the total bread and 1/2 of the bread. The second guy ate 1/2 of the remaining and 1/2 of the bread. The third guy ,fourth guy and fifth guy did the same. After fifth guy there is no bread left out. How many bread are there?
40. All members belonging to D are members of A.
All members belonging to E are members of D.
All members belonging to C are members of both A & D.
Some members of A does not belong to D. All members belonging to D are members of E. 5 questions are there.
41. Write each statements true or false:-
1. The sum of the 1st three statements and the 2nd false statement gives the true statement.
2.The no. of true statements false statement.
3. The sum of 2nd true statement and 1st false statement gives the first true statement.
4. There are at most 3 false statements.
5.There is no two consecutive true statements.
42. There are twelve consecutive flags at an equal interval of distance. A man passes the 8th flag in 8 seconds. How many more seconds will he take to pass the remaining 4 flags?
43. A person has to cover the fixed distance through his horses. There are five horses in the cart. They ran at the full potential for the 24 hours continuously at constant speed and then two of the horses ran away to some other direction. So he reached the destination 48 hours behind the schedule. If the five horses would have run 50 miles more, then the person would have been only 24 hours late. Find the distance of the destination.
44. A boat M leaves shore A and at the same time boat B leaves shore B. They move across the river. They met at 500 yards away from A and after that they met 300 yards away from shore B without halting at shores. Find the distance between the shore A & B.
45. A person was going through train from Bombay to Pune. After every five minutes he finds a train coming from opposite direction. Velocity of trains are equal of either direction. If the person reached Pune in one hour then how many trains he saw in the journey?
46. Food grains are to be sent to city from godown. Owner wants to reach the food grains at 11 O' Clock in the city. If a truck travels at a speed of 30km/hr then he will reach the city one hour earlier. If the truck travels at a speed of 20km/h then he will reach the city one hour late. Find the distance between the godown to city. Also with which speed the truck should travel in order to reach at exactly 11 'O clock.
47. There are five persons A,B,C,D,E whose birthdays occur at the consecutive days. Birthday of A is some days or day before C & birthday of B is exactly the same days or day after E. D is two days older than E. If birth day of C is on Wednesday then find out the birthdays of other.
48. Persons say these statements.
A says either Democratic or liberal wins the elections.
B says Democratic wins.
C says neither democratic nor liberal wins the election.
Of these only one is wrong. Who wins the election?
49. Six persons A,B,C,D,E &F went to soldier cinema. There are six consecutive seats. A sits in the first seat followed by B, followed by C and so on. If A taken on of the six seats, then B should sit adjacent to A. C should sit adjacent to A or B. D should sit adjacent to A, B or C and so on. How many possibilities are there ?
50. Suppose there are four grades A, B, C, D. (A is the best and D is the worst) 4 persons Jack, Jean, Poul and Lucy wrote the final exam and made the statements like this:-
1. Jack: If I will get A then Lucy will get D.
2. Lucy: If I will get C then Jack will get D.
Jack grade is better than Poul grade.
3. Jean: If Jean doesn't get A then Jack will not get A.
4. Poul: If Jack get A, then Jean will not get B, Lucy will get C, I won't either A or B.
If all the above statements are true, then which person will get which grade?
WIPRO PLACEMENT PAPERS
APTITUDE TEST: Questions = 50 ; time limit = 50 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test
There was individual cut off for all the sections
Section1- English, 15 questions
Direction 1-5 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is ‘no error’
1. Unless you stop to make noise at once,/ I will have no option but to / bring the matter to the attention of the police / No error
A B C D
Ans: A
2.The Minister along with his / party colleagues have / been invited to the party / No error
A B C D
Ans: B
3. A group of friends / want to visit/ the new plant as early as possible / No error
A B C D
Ans: B
4. It is rude / for the young / making fun of their elders/ No error
A B C D
Ans : C
5. Meerabai was sent away from her home/ because she spend most of the time/ in the company of holy men/ No error
A B C D
Ans : B
Directions 6-10 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
6. Madan……………the first prize in this competition
A) bore up B) bore with C) bore out D) bore away
Ans: A
7. In large cities people are cut………………from nature.
A) down B) out C) off D) away
Ans: C
8. Your friend died……………over work
A) of B) from C) due to D) with
Ans: A
9. It is not easy to beat……………..a swarm of wasps if they attack you
A) out B) up C) down D) off
Ans: D
10. What a sensation it would cause if it……………………now discovered that such a man had left behind a diary.
A) is B) be C) was were
Ans: D
Directions 11-12: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.
11. Mona was writing a letter to her father.
A) A letter was written to her father by Mona
B) A letter has been written to her father by Mona
C) A letter was being written by Mona to her father
D) a letter was written by Mona to her father
Ans: C
12. He teaches us grammar
A) Grammar is taught to us by him
B) We are being taught Grammar by him
C) Grammar is being taught us by him
D) We are taught Grammar by him
Ans: D
Directions 13-15: The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
13. Basement : Attic
A) Nadir : Zenith B) Zenith : Apex C) Zenith : Root D) Apex : Pinnacle
Ans : A
14. Sip : Gulp
A) Touch : Push B) Cup : Glass C) Tent : Hut D) Soap : Water
Ans : A
15. Parsing : Grammar
A) Running : Health B) Praying : God C) Para trooping : Air force D) Cleaning : House
Ans : C
Section 2-apptitude 15 questions
The questions 1-6 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.
The correct answer is:
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
1. What is John’s age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)
2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)
3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)
4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)
5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)
6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)
7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)
8. X’s father’s wife’s father’s granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
10. If in a certain code “RANGE” is coded as 12345 and “RANDOM” is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word
“MANGO” would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)
11. If “PROMPT” is coded as QSPLOS ,then “PLAYER” should be
(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI
Ans. (a)
12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)
13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the
truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14
Ans.(b)
14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can
they type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75
Ans: E
15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how
many times they toll together.
a) 4
b) 10
c) 15
d) 16
Ans: d)
Section3-technical ,20 questions
1. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. The format specifier “-%d” is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable
Ans. (a)
4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)
5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
7. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
8. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels
Ans. (b)
10. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)
11. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data
Ans. (a)
12. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?
(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM
Ans. (a)
14. A shift register can be used for
(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
15. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady’s anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU
Ans. (a)
16. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema’s description
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
17. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of
a. 1k bytes b. 0.5k bytes c. 2k bytes d. none
Ans: b
18. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions
[a] 6 [b] 7 [c] 10 [d] none
Ans: b
19. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.
[a] 2k/9 [b] (2k+8)/9 [c] (k+8)/9 [d] 2*(k+8)/9 [e] none
Ans: a
20. Virtual memory size depends on
[a] address lines [b] data bus
[c] disc space [d] a & c [e] none
Ans : a
TCS PLACEMENT PAPERS
The TCS Conducted 19-10-2010 Placements. The Placement Procedure as follows.
1) Aptitude test.
2) Technical round
3) MR
4) HR
The Above Placement sample Questions are given below.
Aptitude test:(35 Questions, 80 mins, online test)
Q1. A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For each value of n from 1 to 40,
statement n says “At least and of the statements on this sheet are true.” Which statements are true and which are false?
a)The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered are false.
b)The first 26 statements are false and the rest are true.
c)The first 13 statements are true and the rest are false.
d)The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered are false.
Ans:c
Q1. There are two boxes, one containing 10 red balls and the other containing 10 green balls. You are allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a box at random and a ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of getting a red ball is maximized. This maximum probability is
a)1/2 b)14/19 c)37/38 d)3/4
Ans: 14/19
Q3. A circular dartboard of radius 1 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart at it and it
hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is closer to the center of the circle than the periphery?
a) 0.75 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) 0.25
Ans: d
Q4. 9. A and B play a game of dice between them. The dice consist of colors on their faces (instead of numbers). When the dice are thrown, A wins if both show the same color; otherwise B wins. One die has 4 red face and 2 blue faces. How many red and blue faces should the other die have if the both players have the same chances of winning?
a) 3 red and 3 blue faces b) 2 red and remaining blue
c) 6 red and 0 blue d) 4 red and remaining blue
Ans: a
Q5. On planet zorba, a solar blast has melted the ice caps on its equator. 8 years after the ice melts, tiny plantoids called echina start growing on the rocks. echina grows in the form of a circle and the relationship between the diameter of this circle and the age of echina is given by the formula
d = 4 * sqrt (t – 8)for t = 8
Where the represents the diameter in mm and t the number of years since the solar blast.
Jagan recorded the time of some echina at a particular spot is 24 years then what is diameter?
a) 8 b) 16 c) 25 d) 21
Ans: 16
Q6. A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For all values of n from 1 to 40, statement n says: ‘Exactly n of the statements on this sheet are false.’ Which statements are true and which are false?
a) The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered statements are false.
b) The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered statements are false.
c) All the statements are false.
d) The 39th statement is true and the rest are false.
Ans: d
Q7. Alok and Bhanu play the following coins in a circle game. 99 coins are arranged in a circle with each coin touching two other coin. Two of the coins are special and the rest are ordinary. Alok starts and the players take turns removing an ordinary coin of their choice from the circle and bringing the other coins closer until they again form a (smaller) circle. The goal is to bring the special coins adjacent to each other and the first player to do so wins the game. Initially the special coins are separated by two ordinary coins O1 and O2. Which of the following is true?
a) In order to win, Alok should remove O1 on his first turn.
b) In order to win, Alok should remove one of the coins different from O1 and O2 on his first turn.
c) In order to win, Alok should remove O2 on his first turn.
d) Alok has no winning strategy.
Ans: d
Q8. Two pipes A and B fill at A certain rate B is filled at 10,20,40,80,. If 1/4 of B if filled in 21 hours what time it will take to get completely filled
Ans: 23
Q9. Find average speed if a man travels at speed of 24kmph up and 36kmph down at an altitude of 200m.
Formula is 2xy/(x+y).
Q10. One grandfather has three grandchildren, two of their age difference is 3, eldest child age is 3 times youngest child’s age and eldest child’s age is two times of sum of other two children. What is the age of eldest child?
Ans: 18
Q11. Given a collection of points P in the plane, a 1-set is a point in P that can be separated from the rest by a line, .i.e the point lies on one side of the line while the others lie on the other side.
The number of 1-sets of P is denoted by n1(P). The minimum value of n1(P) over all configurations P of 5 points in the plane in general position(.i.e no three points in P lie on a line) is
a)3 b)5 c) 2 d)1
Ans: 5
Q12. The citizens of planet nigiet are 8 fingered and have thus developed their decimal system in base 8.
A certain street in nigiet contains 1000 (in base
buildings numbered 1 to 1000.
How many 3s are used in numbering these buildings?
a) 54 b) 64 c) 265 d) 192
Ans: 192
Some times base value is chang like: 9finger, 1 to 100(base 9)
Q13. Given 3 lines in the plane such that the points of intersection form a triangle with sides of length 20, 20 and 30, the number of points equidistant from all the 3 lines is
a)1 b)3 c)4 d)0
Q14. Hare in the other. The hare starts after the tortoise has covered 1/5 of its distance and that too leisurely3. A hare and a tortoise have a race along a circle of 100 yards diameter. The tortoise goes in one direction and the. The hare and tortoise meet when the hare has covered only 1/8 of the distance. By what factor should the hare increase its speed so as to tie the race?
a) 37.80 b)8 c) 40 d) 5
Ans: 37.80
Q15. Here 10 programers, type 10 lines with in 10 minutes then 60lines can type within 60 minutes. How many programmers are needed?
a) 16 b) 6 c) 10 d) 60
Ans: 10
This type of Q’s repeated 4times for me but values are different.
Q16. Alok and Bhanu play the following min-max game. Given the expression
N = 9 + X + Y – Z
Where X, Y and Z are variables representing single digits (0 to 9), Alok would like to maximize N while Bhanu
would like to minimize it. Towards this end, Alok chooses a single digit number and Bhanu substitutes this for a variable of her choice (X, Y or Z). Alok then chooses the next value and Bhanu, the variable to substitute the value. Finally Alok proposes the value for the remaining variable. Assuming both play to their optimal strategies, the value of N at the end of the game would be
a) 0 b) 27 c) 18 d) 20
The Q’s concept is same but the equation of N’s is changing.
Q17. Alice and Bob play the following coins-on-a-stack game. 20 coins are stacked one above the other. One of them is a special (gold) coin and the rest are ordinary coins. The goal is to bring the gold coin to the top by repeatedly moving the topmost coin to another position in the stack.
Alice starts and the players take turns. A turn consists of moving the coin on the top to a position i below the top coin (0 = i = 20). We will call this an i-move (thus a 0-move implies doing nothing). The proviso is that an i-move cannot be repeated; for example once a player makes a 2-move, on subsequent turns neither player can make a 2-move. If the gold coin happens to be on top when it’s a player’s turn then the player wins the game. Initially, the gold coinis the third coin from the top. Then
a) In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 1-move.
b) In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 0-move.
c) In order to win, Alice’s first move can be a 0-move or a 1-move.
d) Alice has no winning strategy.
Ans: d
Q18. For the FIFA world cup, Paul the octopus has been predicting the winner of each match with amazing success. It is rumored that in a match between 2 teams A and B, Paul picks A with the same probability as A’s chances of winning. Let’s assume such rumors to be true and that in a match between Ghana and Bolivia, Ghana the stronger team has a probability of 2/3 of winning the game. What is the probability that Paul will correctly pick the winner of the Ghana-Bolivia game?
a)1/9 b)4/9 c)5/9 d)2/3
Ans: 5/9
Q19. 36 people {a1, a2, …, a36} meet and shake hands in a circular fashion. In other words, there are totally 36 handshakes involving the pairs, {a1, a2}, {a2, a3}, …, {a35, a36}, {a36, a1}. Then size of the smallest set of people such that the rest have shaken hands with at least one person in the set is
a)12 b)11 c)13 d)18
Ans: 18
Q20. After the typist writes 12 letters and addresses 12 envelopes, she inserts the letters randomly into the envelopes (1 letter per envelope). What is the probability that exactly 1 letter is inserted in an improper envelope?
a)1/12 b)0 c)12/212 d)11/12
Ans: b
Q21. Ferrari is leading car manufacturer.*Ferrari S.p.A.* is an Italian sports car. It has enjoyed great success. If Mohan’s Ferrari is 3 times faster than his old Mercedes wich gave him 35kmph if Mohan travelled 490 km in his ferrari the how much time(hours) he took?
Easy one try it.
Q22. By using 1,2,3,4,5, how many 12 digit no. can be formed which is divisible by 4, repetation of no. is allowed?
Ans: (5)^11
Q23. The cost 1 plum is 1 cent, 2 apples is 1 cent, 3 cashew is 1 cent. If father buys same amount of fruits for his 3 sons spending 7 cent then what amount of fruit each child will get?
Ans: 1plum, 2apples, 1cashew
Q24. There are some 2 wheelers and 4 wheelers parked total number of wheels present is 240 then how many 4 wheelers were there
Ans: For this question answer is deduced from the options.
Q25. One day Alice meets pal and byte in fairyland. She knows that pal lies on Mondays, Tuesdays and Wednesdays and tells the truth on the other days of the week byte, on the other hand, lies on Thursdays, Fridays and Saturdays, but tells the truth on the other days of the week. Now they make the following statements to Alice – pal. Yesterday was one of those days when I lie byte. Yesterday was one of those days when I lie too. What day is it?
a) Thursday b) Tuesday c) Monday d) Sunday
Ans: a
There was individual cut off for all the sections
Section1- English, 15 questions
Direction 1-5 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is ‘no error’
1. Unless you stop to make noise at once,/ I will have no option but to / bring the matter to the attention of the police / No error
A B C D
Ans: A
2.The Minister along with his / party colleagues have / been invited to the party / No error
A B C D
Ans: B
3. A group of friends / want to visit/ the new plant as early as possible / No error
A B C D
Ans: B
4. It is rude / for the young / making fun of their elders/ No error
A B C D
Ans : C
5. Meerabai was sent away from her home/ because she spend most of the time/ in the company of holy men/ No error
A B C D
Ans : B
Directions 6-10 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
6. Madan……………the first prize in this competition
A) bore up B) bore with C) bore out D) bore away
Ans: A
7. In large cities people are cut………………from nature.
A) down B) out C) off D) away
Ans: C
8. Your friend died……………over work
A) of B) from C) due to D) with
Ans: A
9. It is not easy to beat……………..a swarm of wasps if they attack you
A) out B) up C) down D) off
Ans: D
10. What a sensation it would cause if it……………………now discovered that such a man had left behind a diary.
A) is B) be C) was were
Ans: D
Directions 11-12: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.
11. Mona was writing a letter to her father.
A) A letter was written to her father by Mona
B) A letter has been written to her father by Mona
C) A letter was being written by Mona to her father
D) a letter was written by Mona to her father
Ans: C
12. He teaches us grammar
A) Grammar is taught to us by him
B) We are being taught Grammar by him
C) Grammar is being taught us by him
D) We are taught Grammar by him
Ans: D
Directions 13-15: The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
13. Basement : Attic
A) Nadir : Zenith B) Zenith : Apex C) Zenith : Root D) Apex : Pinnacle
Ans : A
14. Sip : Gulp
A) Touch : Push B) Cup : Glass C) Tent : Hut D) Soap : Water
Ans : A
15. Parsing : Grammar
A) Running : Health B) Praying : God C) Para trooping : Air force D) Cleaning : House
Ans : C
Section 2-apptitude 15 questions
The questions 1-6 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.
The correct answer is:
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
1. What is John’s age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)
2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)
3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)
4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)
5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)
6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)
7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)
8. X’s father’s wife’s father’s granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
10. If in a certain code “RANGE” is coded as 12345 and “RANDOM” is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word
“MANGO” would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)
11. If “PROMPT” is coded as QSPLOS ,then “PLAYER” should be
(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI
Ans. (a)
12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)
13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the
truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14
Ans.(b)
14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can
they type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75
Ans: E
15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how
many times they toll together.
a) 4
b) 10
c) 15
d) 16
Ans: d)
Section3-technical ,20 questions
1. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. The format specifier “-%d” is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable
Ans. (a)
4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)
5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
7. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
8. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels
Ans. (b)
10. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)
11. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data
Ans. (a)
12. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?
(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM
Ans. (a)
14. A shift register can be used for
(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
15. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady’s anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU
Ans. (a)
16. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema’s description
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
17. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of
a. 1k bytes b. 0.5k bytes c. 2k bytes d. none
Ans: b
18. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions
[a] 6 [b] 7 [c] 10 [d] none
Ans: b
19. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.
[a] 2k/9 [b] (2k+8)/9 [c] (k+8)/9 [d] 2*(k+8)/9 [e] none
Ans: a
20. Virtual memory size depends on
[a] address lines [b] data bus
[c] disc space [d] a & c [e] none
Ans : a
TCS PLACEMENT PAPERS
The TCS Conducted 19-10-2010 Placements. The Placement Procedure as follows.
1) Aptitude test.
2) Technical round
3) MR
4) HR
The Above Placement sample Questions are given below.
Aptitude test:(35 Questions, 80 mins, online test)
Q1. A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For each value of n from 1 to 40,
statement n says “At least and of the statements on this sheet are true.” Which statements are true and which are false?
a)The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered are false.
b)The first 26 statements are false and the rest are true.
c)The first 13 statements are true and the rest are false.
d)The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered are false.
Ans:c
Q1. There are two boxes, one containing 10 red balls and the other containing 10 green balls. You are allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a box at random and a ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of getting a red ball is maximized. This maximum probability is
a)1/2 b)14/19 c)37/38 d)3/4
Ans: 14/19
Q3. A circular dartboard of radius 1 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart at it and it
hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is closer to the center of the circle than the periphery?
a) 0.75 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) 0.25
Ans: d
Q4. 9. A and B play a game of dice between them. The dice consist of colors on their faces (instead of numbers). When the dice are thrown, A wins if both show the same color; otherwise B wins. One die has 4 red face and 2 blue faces. How many red and blue faces should the other die have if the both players have the same chances of winning?
a) 3 red and 3 blue faces b) 2 red and remaining blue
c) 6 red and 0 blue d) 4 red and remaining blue
Ans: a
Q5. On planet zorba, a solar blast has melted the ice caps on its equator. 8 years after the ice melts, tiny plantoids called echina start growing on the rocks. echina grows in the form of a circle and the relationship between the diameter of this circle and the age of echina is given by the formula
d = 4 * sqrt (t – 8)for t = 8
Where the represents the diameter in mm and t the number of years since the solar blast.
Jagan recorded the time of some echina at a particular spot is 24 years then what is diameter?
a) 8 b) 16 c) 25 d) 21
Ans: 16
Q6. A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For all values of n from 1 to 40, statement n says: ‘Exactly n of the statements on this sheet are false.’ Which statements are true and which are false?
a) The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered statements are false.
b) The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered statements are false.
c) All the statements are false.
d) The 39th statement is true and the rest are false.
Ans: d
Q7. Alok and Bhanu play the following coins in a circle game. 99 coins are arranged in a circle with each coin touching two other coin. Two of the coins are special and the rest are ordinary. Alok starts and the players take turns removing an ordinary coin of their choice from the circle and bringing the other coins closer until they again form a (smaller) circle. The goal is to bring the special coins adjacent to each other and the first player to do so wins the game. Initially the special coins are separated by two ordinary coins O1 and O2. Which of the following is true?
a) In order to win, Alok should remove O1 on his first turn.
b) In order to win, Alok should remove one of the coins different from O1 and O2 on his first turn.
c) In order to win, Alok should remove O2 on his first turn.
d) Alok has no winning strategy.
Ans: d
Q8. Two pipes A and B fill at A certain rate B is filled at 10,20,40,80,. If 1/4 of B if filled in 21 hours what time it will take to get completely filled
Ans: 23
Q9. Find average speed if a man travels at speed of 24kmph up and 36kmph down at an altitude of 200m.
Formula is 2xy/(x+y).
Q10. One grandfather has three grandchildren, two of their age difference is 3, eldest child age is 3 times youngest child’s age and eldest child’s age is two times of sum of other two children. What is the age of eldest child?
Ans: 18
Q11. Given a collection of points P in the plane, a 1-set is a point in P that can be separated from the rest by a line, .i.e the point lies on one side of the line while the others lie on the other side.
The number of 1-sets of P is denoted by n1(P). The minimum value of n1(P) over all configurations P of 5 points in the plane in general position(.i.e no three points in P lie on a line) is
a)3 b)5 c) 2 d)1
Ans: 5
Q12. The citizens of planet nigiet are 8 fingered and have thus developed their decimal system in base 8.
A certain street in nigiet contains 1000 (in base
buildings numbered 1 to 1000.How many 3s are used in numbering these buildings?
a) 54 b) 64 c) 265 d) 192
Ans: 192
Some times base value is chang like: 9finger, 1 to 100(base 9)
Q13. Given 3 lines in the plane such that the points of intersection form a triangle with sides of length 20, 20 and 30, the number of points equidistant from all the 3 lines is
a)1 b)3 c)4 d)0
Q14. Hare in the other. The hare starts after the tortoise has covered 1/5 of its distance and that too leisurely3. A hare and a tortoise have a race along a circle of 100 yards diameter. The tortoise goes in one direction and the. The hare and tortoise meet when the hare has covered only 1/8 of the distance. By what factor should the hare increase its speed so as to tie the race?
a) 37.80 b)8 c) 40 d) 5
Ans: 37.80
Q15. Here 10 programers, type 10 lines with in 10 minutes then 60lines can type within 60 minutes. How many programmers are needed?
a) 16 b) 6 c) 10 d) 60
Ans: 10
This type of Q’s repeated 4times for me but values are different.
Q16. Alok and Bhanu play the following min-max game. Given the expression
N = 9 + X + Y – Z
Where X, Y and Z are variables representing single digits (0 to 9), Alok would like to maximize N while Bhanu
would like to minimize it. Towards this end, Alok chooses a single digit number and Bhanu substitutes this for a variable of her choice (X, Y or Z). Alok then chooses the next value and Bhanu, the variable to substitute the value. Finally Alok proposes the value for the remaining variable. Assuming both play to their optimal strategies, the value of N at the end of the game would be
a) 0 b) 27 c) 18 d) 20
The Q’s concept is same but the equation of N’s is changing.
Q17. Alice and Bob play the following coins-on-a-stack game. 20 coins are stacked one above the other. One of them is a special (gold) coin and the rest are ordinary coins. The goal is to bring the gold coin to the top by repeatedly moving the topmost coin to another position in the stack.
Alice starts and the players take turns. A turn consists of moving the coin on the top to a position i below the top coin (0 = i = 20). We will call this an i-move (thus a 0-move implies doing nothing). The proviso is that an i-move cannot be repeated; for example once a player makes a 2-move, on subsequent turns neither player can make a 2-move. If the gold coin happens to be on top when it’s a player’s turn then the player wins the game. Initially, the gold coinis the third coin from the top. Then
a) In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 1-move.
b) In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 0-move.
c) In order to win, Alice’s first move can be a 0-move or a 1-move.
d) Alice has no winning strategy.
Ans: d
Q18. For the FIFA world cup, Paul the octopus has been predicting the winner of each match with amazing success. It is rumored that in a match between 2 teams A and B, Paul picks A with the same probability as A’s chances of winning. Let’s assume such rumors to be true and that in a match between Ghana and Bolivia, Ghana the stronger team has a probability of 2/3 of winning the game. What is the probability that Paul will correctly pick the winner of the Ghana-Bolivia game?
a)1/9 b)4/9 c)5/9 d)2/3
Ans: 5/9
Q19. 36 people {a1, a2, …, a36} meet and shake hands in a circular fashion. In other words, there are totally 36 handshakes involving the pairs, {a1, a2}, {a2, a3}, …, {a35, a36}, {a36, a1}. Then size of the smallest set of people such that the rest have shaken hands with at least one person in the set is
a)12 b)11 c)13 d)18
Ans: 18
Q20. After the typist writes 12 letters and addresses 12 envelopes, she inserts the letters randomly into the envelopes (1 letter per envelope). What is the probability that exactly 1 letter is inserted in an improper envelope?
a)1/12 b)0 c)12/212 d)11/12
Ans: b
Q21. Ferrari is leading car manufacturer.*Ferrari S.p.A.* is an Italian sports car. It has enjoyed great success. If Mohan’s Ferrari is 3 times faster than his old Mercedes wich gave him 35kmph if Mohan travelled 490 km in his ferrari the how much time(hours) he took?
Easy one try it.
Q22. By using 1,2,3,4,5, how many 12 digit no. can be formed which is divisible by 4, repetation of no. is allowed?
Ans: (5)^11
Q23. The cost 1 plum is 1 cent, 2 apples is 1 cent, 3 cashew is 1 cent. If father buys same amount of fruits for his 3 sons spending 7 cent then what amount of fruit each child will get?
Ans: 1plum, 2apples, 1cashew
Q24. There are some 2 wheelers and 4 wheelers parked total number of wheels present is 240 then how many 4 wheelers were there
Ans: For this question answer is deduced from the options.
Q25. One day Alice meets pal and byte in fairyland. She knows that pal lies on Mondays, Tuesdays and Wednesdays and tells the truth on the other days of the week byte, on the other hand, lies on Thursdays, Fridays and Saturdays, but tells the truth on the other days of the week. Now they make the following statements to Alice – pal. Yesterday was one of those days when I lie byte. Yesterday was one of those days when I lie too. What day is it?
a) Thursday b) Tuesday c) Monday d) Sunday
Ans: a
